Last month, I made a brief posting concerning my personal experiences with the relationship between non-heterosexual sexual orientation and non-typical gender norms. The relationship's not hard and fast--I think that my own person is proof enough of that--but I would argue that some sort of positive correlation between the two does exist.

I'm completely in the dark, though, as to the reasons for this. Judith Butler might well be right about the performativity of gender, but I'm not familiar with any scientific data which can go any ways to explaining why this correlation should exist at all. I'd be interested in hearing what sources, and what reasons, GNXP thinkers can come up with.

Please, no flames in the comments area. (This isn't because of my non-existent sensitivity, but rather because I'm interested to see what will come of this.)

UPDATE (4:54 PM, 6 January) : And in case anyone is wondering, I'm the oldest of two children, of average weight on birth after a normal Caesarian delivery, my younger sibling being a heterosexual girl. On my mother's side, I do have at least one, probably two, non-heterosexual relatives, the former being a cousin, the latter an uncle.