Posts with Comments by a.f.o.
A Spanish coincidence?
The Salic law never applied to Spain, if it had there would have been no queen regnants like "Reyna Catolica" Isabella and her daughter "Mad" Juana. Fernando VII was a son of Carlos IV. Wouldn't he have succeeded him without recourse to the Salic law?
The Salic law was introduced by the Bourbon dynasty on assuming power after the War of Spanish Succession; Isabella reigned two centuries before that. If Carlos III had succeeded in repealing the law, the next King of Spain would not have been Carlos IV, but Princess Carlota Joaquina (his firstborn) and her line (i.e., Pedro of Portugal/Brazil - see my post above). Fernando VII's right to the throne was never in doubt, but then I didn't say it was.
The Salic law was introduced by the Bourbon dynasty on assuming power after the War of Spanish Succession; Isabella reigned two centuries before that. If Carlos III had succeeded in repealing the law, the next King of Spain would not have been Carlos IV, but Princess Carlota Joaquina (his firstborn) and her line (i.e., Pedro of Portugal/Brazil - see my post above). Fernando VII's right to the throne was never in doubt, but then I didn't say it was.
Why didn't Spain send the Portguese the way of the Galicians, or of the Provençals?
The King of Spain inherited Portugal in 1580, but the country successfully revolted in 1640, taking advantage of the (failed) Catalan revolt of the same year. Late in the eighteenth century, Spanish King Carlos III tried to abrogate the Salic Law to allow the two kingdoms to be reunited in the offspring of King João VI of Portugal and Princess Carlota Joaquina of Spain, but he failed. (This would would have been Prince Pedro, who later led the rebellion for Brazilian independence against his father and was ruled Brazil as Emperor Pedro I, 1822-1831). In Spain, the Salic Law was later abolished with disastrous consequences (see "Carlist Wars").
I'm thinking that Brazil grew to such an extent that Portugal became effectively "Portu-Brasil". King Joao II even moved his capital over there IIRC. Imagine if George II had decided to rule Britain from Philadelphia, or Victoria from Bombay!
Plans for relocating the Portuguese capital to Brazil existed since the mid-17th century, exactly because European Portugal was so exposed to invasion. King João VI (not II) did move to Rio de Janeiro to continue the war against Napoleon despite losing the homeland. King Carlos IV of Spain also planned to flee to Buenos Aires for the same reason and with the same objective, but he was thwarted by indecisiveness, a traitorous son (the future Fernando VII, one of the worst kings ever), and rapid advance by the French army.
The King of Spain inherited Portugal in 1580, but the country successfully revolted in 1640, taking advantage of the (failed) Catalan revolt of the same year. Late in the eighteenth century, Spanish King Carlos III tried to abrogate the Salic Law to allow the two kingdoms to be reunited in the offspring of King João VI of Portugal and Princess Carlota Joaquina of Spain, but he failed. (This would would have been Prince Pedro, who later led the rebellion for Brazilian independence against his father and was ruled Brazil as Emperor Pedro I, 1822-1831). In Spain, the Salic Law was later abolished with disastrous consequences (see "Carlist Wars").
I'm thinking that Brazil grew to such an extent that Portugal became effectively "Portu-Brasil". King Joao II even moved his capital over there IIRC. Imagine if George II had decided to rule Britain from Philadelphia, or Victoria from Bombay!
Plans for relocating the Portuguese capital to Brazil existed since the mid-17th century, exactly because European Portugal was so exposed to invasion. King João VI (not II) did move to Rio de Janeiro to continue the war against Napoleon despite losing the homeland. King Carlos IV of Spain also planned to flee to Buenos Aires for the same reason and with the same objective, but he was thwarted by indecisiveness, a traitorous son (the future Fernando VII, one of the worst kings ever), and rapid advance by the French army.
About the lack of unity in the Spanish Empire, I cannot refrain from quoting the famous oath of allegiance of the Aragonese nobility to the king:
"We, who are as good as you, swear to you, who are no better than we, to accept you as our king, provided you observe all our liberties and laws; but if not, not".
If I remember correctly, this formula dates from the 12th century.
"We, who are as good as you, swear to you, who are no better than we, to accept you as our king, provided you observe all our liberties and laws; but if not, not".
If I remember correctly, this formula dates from the 12th century.
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