Explanation requested
I have an honest question for bloggers of all stripes. Why do
some immigrants who come here of their own volition qualify for affirmative action while others do not? In particular, why do Hispanics qualify for affirmative action while East and South Asian immigrants do not? Though I disagree with the rationale, I can at least
understand the justification of affirmative action for blacks as reparations for slavery and Jim Crow. But
why should some immigrants who come here by choice get preferences over native born Americans and other immigrants who come here by choice? Can anyone present an intellectually consistent defense of this policy?
Razib adds: Asian Americans do get affirmative action consideration in contracting. Middle Easterners-as whites-do not. There is some controversy over West Indian blacks using a major portion of affirmative action programs originally targeted toward native born blacks (in fact, a disproportionate share).
Godless clarifies: Razib brings up a good point. Let me rephrase: "Why do groups other than the descendants of black slaves and Native Americans benefit from racial preferences?"
Razib adds: Many Hispanics are also phenotypically white (and the majority identify as white in the
Census)-but still get affirmative action. Also-remember examples like Loretta Sanchez of California switching back to her Hispanic maiden name when she ran for office-best of both worlds! I suspect that many white Hispanics would have Anglicized their names if it were not for the low-hanging fruit of race preferences.